For the space of about 2-3 weeks I self-medicated on Lorazepam (about 1mg daily).

Within that time frame I started to develop dizzyness and constant light-headedness. Thinking the Lorazepam might be the cause I stopped taking it on Wednesday. That night I had a very difficult time getting to sleep and the quality of sleep was very poor. I had quite a headache the next morning.

Now it's Sunday and the light-headedness still hasn't subsided. If Lorazepam was the cause, wouldn't it have stopped by now? I wasn't taking much and didn't take it for very long.